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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Chulin 135

****** Perek Reishis ha'Gez *****


(a) We learned in our Mishnah that Reishis ha'Gez applies in all circumstances to sheep of Chulin but not of Kodshim, just as we learned regarding Matanos.
Does it make any difference ...
  1. ... whether the sheep is young or old?
  2. ... how many times per year one shears the sheep?
(b) Besides the fact that Matanos pertain to cattle, sheep and goats, whereas Reishis ha'Gez is confined to sheep, which other Chumra does Matanos have over Reishis ha'Gez?

(c) Seeing as the Torah writes "ve'Reishis Gez Tzoncha ... ", and 'Tzon' generally incorporates goats, from where does the Tana know that Reishis ha'Gez is confined to sheep?

(d) Beis Shamai learns from the Pasuk in Yeshayah "Yechayeh Ish Eglas Bakar u'Sh'tei Tzon" that two sheep are subject to Reishis ha'Gez.
What do Beis Hillel say?

(a) Rebbi Dosa ben Horkinas agrees with Beis Hillel. What additional requirement does he need in order to be Chayav? How much is a 'P'ras'?

(b) What do the Chachamim say to that?

(c) And one gives the Kohen five Sela'im- weight of wool in Yehudah completely bleached.
How much is that in Galil?

(d) What can the Kohen do with that?

(a) What does the Tana learn from the Pasuk "Titen Lo"?

(b) What does the Tana say about wool which the owner already ...

  1. ... dyed?
  2. ... bleached?
(c) What does the Tana say about someone who purchased the wool (still attached) from ...
  1. ... a Nochri?
  2. ... a fellow-Yisrael?
(d) And what will be the Din if Reuven purchases all of Shimon's gray animals or all of his male animal, and Shimon retains all the white ones or all the females?
(a) What do we learn from "ve'Reishis ha'Gez *Tzoncha*"?

(b) How do we reconcile this with ...

  1. ... the Pasuk "ve'Lo Sagoz bi'Vechor Tzonecha".
  2. ... Rebbi Elazar, who declares that even shearing Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis is prohibited?
(c) How can we even suggest giving the shearings of Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis (regarding someone who transgressed the Isur de'Rabbanan) to the Kohen, seeing as they are Kadosh?

(d) What problem still remains?

(a) Rebbi Mani bar Patish in the name of Rebbi Yanai therefore re-learns the case, still in connection with Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis.
How does he avoid the problem of redeeming the wool?

(b) In that case, why can we not establish the Din 've'Lo be'Mukdashin' even by Kodshei Mizbe'ach?

(c) If we can establish the case by Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis by where the owner precludes both the shearings and the weakening of the animal on account of the shearing from the Hekdesh, why can we not do the same by Kodshei Mizbe'ach?

(a) The source for this is Rebbi Yossi, who holds that if someone is Makdish the leg of an Olah, the Kedushah spreads to the entire animal.
What does Rebbi Meir say?

(b) Then why can we not establish our Mishnah (a S'tam Mishnah) by Kodshei Mizbe'ach, according to Rebbi Meir?

(c) Rava establishes 'Aval Lo be'Mukdashin' by someone who is Makdish only the wool.
On what grounds is the owner then Patur from Reishis ha'Gez (based on the Pasuk "Gez (Tzoncha) Titen Lo")?

(a) According to Rava, "Tzoncha" comes to teach us the Din of Rebbi Ilai, who exempts a sheep belonging to Shutfim from Reishis ha'Gez.
What do the Rabbanan learn from "Tzoncha"?

(b) Why do they not also exempt the Shutfus of a Yisrael?

(c) Rebbi Ilai learns Shutfus of a Nochri from the Reisha "Reishis Degancha".
On what grounds do the Rabbanan disagree with him ...

  1. ... in this point?
  2. ... when he counters that the 'Vav' in "ve'Reishis Gez Tzoncha" combines them?
(d) Why, according to Rebbi Ilai, is it necessary for the Torah to repeat "Reishis", and then to have to add a 'Vav'?
Answers to questions



(a) According to the second Lashon, the Rabbanan do not exempt Shutfus Nochri from Terumah.
How does this help us understand their opinion regarding Reishis ha'Gez? How will they therefore Darshen "Tzoncha"?

(b) Seeing as the Rabbanan exempt Shutfus Nochri from "Tzoncha", why do they not Darshen likewise from "Degancha"?

(c) They therefore Darshen from "Degancha"; either ''Degancha'', 've'Lo Digun Akum', or "Degancha", 've'Lo Degan Akum'.
What is the meaning of ...

  1. ... ''Degancha'', 've'Lo Digun Akum'?
  2. ... "Degancha", 've'Lo Degan Akum'?
(a) The Rabbanan's opinion in the second Lashon is based on a Beraisa, which discusses a case where a Yisrael and a Nochri bought a field be'Shutfus.
What does Rebbi mean when he says 'Tevel ve'Chulin Me'uravin Zeh ba'Zeh'?

(b) What does Raban Shimon ben Gamliel say?

(c) What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(d) What do we in any event, learn from the Beraisa?

(a) Why do some commentaries maintain that, according to Rebbi, there is nothing to be done?

(b) Why is this not correct? Besides bringing other Tevel and Ma'asering half of the mixed batch with it, what else could the owner do?

(c) Why will this be possible even according to those who hold that one could not do so in a case where Chadash and Yashan became mixed up?

(d) What other ramifications are there in the Machlokes between Rebbi and Raban Shimon ben Gamliel?

(a) What do we mean when we cite as an alternative explanation, that Rebbi Ilai learns both from "Tzoncha"? What does 'both' refer to?

(b) What do we gain by learning like this?

(c) On what grounds do the Rabbanan then disagree?

(a) According to Rava, it is only in the case of Reishis ha'Gez that Rebbi Ilai exempts the owner on account of Shutfus Yisrael, but nowhere else. Why, in spite of the Pasuk in Shoftim "Degancha", does he concede that the owner remains Chayav?

(b) Then what do we learn from "Degancha"?

(c) Initially, Rav learns from the Pasuk in Korach "Arisoseichem" (in the plural) that one is Chayav Chalah on a dough of Shutfus.
Why do we need a Pasuk? Why might we have thought otherwise?

(d) After concluding that we would rather learn "Reishis" "Reishis" from Terumah that one is Chayav on a dough of Shutfus, what do we learn from "Arisoseichem"?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Kedoshim "u've'Kutzrechem es Ketzir Artzechem" (in connection with Pe'ah) and from the Pasuk in Re'ei (in connection with Bechor) "u'Vechoros Bekarchem ve'Tzonchem"?

(b) Then why does the Torah write "Sadcha" by the former and "Bekarcha ve'Tzoncha" by the latter?

(c) And now that the Torah writes in Va'eschanan " Lema'an Yirbu Yemeichem vi'Yemei Yemeichem" to teach us that a house belonging to Shutfim is Chayav Mezuzah, why does the Torah write (in the previous Pasuk) "Beisecha"? What does Rabah learn from that?

Answers to questions

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